Some time ago I made the remark that I limit deductibility of computers, peripherals, and related supplies to 80% if the computer is actually physically located in the home.
Some hoary-headed swain reminded me that if I did this, the customer would lose deductibility on his home office.
This was news to me, but the aforementioned greybeard was probably right. But why? Is it because the "exclusive" nature will get thrown out at the very mention that 20% could be personal use? If so, this may be correct, but certainly not fair.
Why?
Some hoary-headed swain reminded me that if I did this, the customer would lose deductibility on his home office.
This was news to me, but the aforementioned greybeard was probably right. But why? Is it because the "exclusive" nature will get thrown out at the very mention that 20% could be personal use? If so, this may be correct, but certainly not fair.
Why?
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