Determining valuation on inherited property

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  • AZ-Tax
    Senior Member
    • Feb 2008
    • 2604

    #1

    Determining valuation on inherited property

    My personal opinion would be an appraisal asap after deceased death but in this case its been 10 months since the deceased death. The PR asked me if she can determine a valuation based on Realtor comps and Zillow plus also obtain an appraisal and use the higher of the 2. Your thoughts.
  • Burke
    Senior Member
    • Jan 2008
    • 7068

    #2
    Is this for federal Estate Tax purposes? In other words, is a Form 706 required? If not, I would use any reasonable and fair method. What you describe sounds adequate for estate income tax purposes. If a 706 is required, or there are other reasons that the Executor thinks would surface and cause problems or lawsuits, I would get a professional appraisal.

    Comment

    • AZ-Tax
      Senior Member
      • Feb 2008
      • 2604

      #3
      No form 706 required

      Originally posted by Burke
      Is this for federal Estate Tax purposes? In other words, is a Form 706 required? If not, I would use any reasonable and fair method. What you describe sounds adequate for estate income tax purposes. If a 706 is required, or there are other reasons that the Executor thinks would surface and cause problems or lawsuits, I would get a professional appraisal.
      There is a state/county inheritance tax that needs to be paid which is 1% of gross Estate so the PR wants the valuation to be low for the inheritance tax but also want the cost basis to be high for income tax purposes.

      Comment

      • JohnH
        Senior Member
        • Apr 2007
        • 5339

        #4
        Originally posted by AZ-Tax
        There is a state/county inheritance tax that needs to be paid which is 1% of gross Estate so the PR wants the valuation to be low for the inheritance tax but also want the cost basis to be high for income tax purposes.
        There's probably some wiggle room between a very high valuation and a very low valuation - one which would pass the laugh test. So I'd ask the PR if they prefer to save 1% now and pay at least 15% later, or vice versa? Let them make the decision.
        "The only function of economic forecasting is to make astrology look respectful" - John Kenneth Galbraith

        Comment

        • jimmcg
          Senior Member
          • Aug 2005
          • 633

          #5
          Prop Valuation

          Originally posted by AZ-Tax
          My personal opinion would be an appraisal asap after deceased death but in this case its been 10 months since the deceased death. The PR asked me if she can determine a valuation based on Realtor comps and Zillow plus also obtain an appraisal and use the higher of the 2. Your thoughts.
          Some counties or states perform periodic appraisals for property tax purposes every few years. This could be a starting point which can be adjusted to date of death valuation based on current facts.

          Comment

          • Burke
            Senior Member
            • Jan 2008
            • 7068

            #6
            Originally posted by AZ-Tax
            There is a state/county inheritance tax that needs to be paid which is 1% of gross Estate so the PR wants the valuation to be low for the inheritance tax but also want the cost basis to be high for income tax purposes.
            Sorry, PR can't have it both ways. Settle on what is reasonable and reflects as closely as possible actual FMV (at the date of death.) Note recent federal legislation requiring values to be reported which reflect the same on both the Estate tax return and basis at the time of sale. A professional appraisal might be more accurate, but could be lower than realtor comps or Zillow. Once it is determined, you have to use the same for both accountings. State/county would probably accept last tax valuation as FMV, depending on how they determine it (100%?).
            After a year since DOD, property values have probably increased due to the market. So there may be a taxable gain.
            Last edited by Burke; 08-31-2015, 11:59 AM.

            Comment

            • BHoffman
              Senior Member
              • Feb 2008
              • 1768

              #7
              I assume the decedent was not an AZ resident since AZ has no inheritance tax, right?

              Comment

              • AZ-Tax
                Senior Member
                • Feb 2008
                • 2604

                #8
                72% of County assessed values.

                Originally posted by Burke
                Sorry, PR can't have it both ways. Settle on what is reasonable and reflects as closely as possible actual FMV (at the date of death.) Note recent federal legislation requiring values to be reported which reflect the same on both the Estate tax return and basis at the time of sale. A professional appraisal might be more accurate, but could be lower than realtor comps or Zillow. Once it is determined, you have to use the same for both accountings. State/county would probably accept last tax valuation as FMV, depending on how they determine it (100%?).
                After a year since DOD, property values have probably increased due to the market. So there may be a taxable gain.
                That is the issue, the valuation is based on 72% of County assessed value. Also, property warranty deeded to heirs and no sale is involved nor will be.

                Comment

                • Burke
                  Senior Member
                  • Jan 2008
                  • 7068

                  #9
                  You mean the inheritance tax is based on 72% of county assessed value? Or the county real estate taxes? So the PR only wants to have the FMV for possible future sale? You said she needed it for income tax purposes. In either case, the FMV used needs to be the same for both purposes.

                  Comment

                  • AZ-Tax
                    Senior Member
                    • Feb 2008
                    • 2604

                    #10
                    Based on assessed value

                    Originally posted by Burke
                    You mean the inheritance tax is based on 72% of county assessed value? Or the county real estate taxes? So the PR only wants to have the FMV for possible future sale? You said she needed it for income tax purposes. In either case, the FMV used needs to be the same for both purposes.
                    Based on assessed value

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