The deceased TP had depreciating rental properties and lawn equipment. Heirs received rental properties and lawn equipment. Am I correct the disposition value and disposition date would be the fair market value the date of TP's death? One of the rental houses sold in 2014, 2 months after the TP passed. Can that gross sale amount be used as a disposition value?
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Disposing of Assets on Final 1040 Tax Return
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I imagine it is asking for the disposition value as the software is trying to calculate the gain? Since the properties transferred to the heirs, there would not be any. I think you can code it not to calculate gain/loss. I can in my software. The disposition date would take care of the depreciation adjustment for a short year.
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Recapture just disappers?
Originally posted by AZ-Tax View PostThe deceased TP had depreciating rental properties and lawn equipment. Heirs received rental properties and lawn equipment. Am I correct the disposition value and disposition date would be the fair market value the date of TP's death? One of the rental houses sold in 2014, 2 months after the TP passed. Can that gross sale amount be used as a disposition value?
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Originally posted by AZ-Tax View PostSo the deceased nor the heirs are responsible for any recapture. The recapture just disappears?
In my software (ProSeries) I would enter the 'disposition' date (date of death) to stop the depreciation on that date, and leave the 'sales price' blank.
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did the property sell in the estate/probate or did the beneficiaries sell it after it was transferred? The basis for him remains what it was before his death. The FMV to the beneficiary is their basis. Asset out of service date is DOD. Sale amount would be zero. Unless, the property continued as a rental between his death and the sale, in which case, ownership for this period needs to be determined.Believe nothing you have not personally researched and verified.
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Ownership determinted, this may help
Originally posted by taxea View Postdid the property sell in the estate/probate or did the beneficiaries sell it after it was transferred? The basis for him remains what it was before his death. The FMV to the beneficiary is their basis. Asset out of service date is DOD. Sale amount would be zero. Unless, the property continued as a rental between his death and the sale, in which case, ownership for this period needs to be determined.
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