I have a client, age 61, (born 1945) who will be separating from his company this year. As part of the separation agreement he will receive a 12 month salary severence package, all to be received this year. This will place them (MFJ) well into the 25% tax bracket, with somewhat over $100k taxable income.
Client has a 401k, that among other investments has 2,000 shares of employer stock, current market value Of $60.00/share. He has an average basis of $8.00 in these shares.
The client's investment councellor/financial consultant has told me that he intends to withdraw these shares, and cash them in, and would like to know the best way to do this from a tax point of view. Clearly, he would like to have them taxed as LT Cap gains.
Is the following treatment correct?
If entire 401k is closed out, taking the employer stock in kind, TP has a lump sum distribution , with an NUA of (60-8)*2000 = $104,000 which should be reported in box 6 of his 1099.
He can then sell the shares, with LTCG tax treatment up to the amount of the NUA even if held in his name for less than 1 year.
TP cannot rollover any part of his 401k, else losing the Lump Sum and NUA treatment.
Without NUA treatment, gain from sale of stock would be treated as short term if held less than 1 year.
Remaining taxable portion of 401k payout will get hit at 28% rate or even 33% if TI exceeds $182,800. (I don't know the value of the rest of his 401k)
I think this is correct. My problem is that on page 20 of pub 575 the paragraph on NUA included in income, reference is made to an NUA worksheet for form 4972. This form, income averaging, is not available to my client because of his age. Do I just use the worksheet to calculate the CG on the NUA, and enter the sale directly on Schedule D?
So I am confused
Can anyone confirm the above approach, or set me straight if I have erred?
Client has a 401k, that among other investments has 2,000 shares of employer stock, current market value Of $60.00/share. He has an average basis of $8.00 in these shares.
The client's investment councellor/financial consultant has told me that he intends to withdraw these shares, and cash them in, and would like to know the best way to do this from a tax point of view. Clearly, he would like to have them taxed as LT Cap gains.
Is the following treatment correct?
If entire 401k is closed out, taking the employer stock in kind, TP has a lump sum distribution , with an NUA of (60-8)*2000 = $104,000 which should be reported in box 6 of his 1099.
He can then sell the shares, with LTCG tax treatment up to the amount of the NUA even if held in his name for less than 1 year.
TP cannot rollover any part of his 401k, else losing the Lump Sum and NUA treatment.
Without NUA treatment, gain from sale of stock would be treated as short term if held less than 1 year.
Remaining taxable portion of 401k payout will get hit at 28% rate or even 33% if TI exceeds $182,800. (I don't know the value of the rest of his 401k)
I think this is correct. My problem is that on page 20 of pub 575 the paragraph on NUA included in income, reference is made to an NUA worksheet for form 4972. This form, income averaging, is not available to my client because of his age. Do I just use the worksheet to calculate the CG on the NUA, and enter the sale directly on Schedule D?
So I am confused
Can anyone confirm the above approach, or set me straight if I have erred?
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