Gretel - when you asked about the in-kind farm work payment the other day, you mentioned that the cows received as a substitute for cash wages had no basis and I think Snag also said the same thing in another post. Is that right? I can't quite get my mind around that or can't understand it. If the guy was paid $200 in cash and bought cows with it himself, then he would have $200 basis, so if he gets paid by another person with merchandise (cows in this case) worth $200 instead of cash, then wouldn't he have that $200 basis in the cows? Or, am I not getting it?
I understand that IRS regards a person's labor as nothing, but in this case someone else pays him with livestock that would have cost him $200 to buy, then would they not be depreciable at $200? Would appreciate your thoughts. Thanks.
I understand that IRS regards a person's labor as nothing, but in this case someone else pays him with livestock that would have cost him $200 to buy, then would they not be depreciable at $200? Would appreciate your thoughts. Thanks.
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