I think I understand how this one works, but want to make sure.
Client has a 401k with old employer valued at $45,000. Client also has outstanding loan balance of $5900 on the 401k. Due to some extraneous circumstances client will have very low income in 2006 (less than $10,000).
He can rollover the current account value, default on the loan and pay income tax on the default via 1099-C. Is this right?
If so, I think it's a good strategy to get away from a $5900 balance for roughly $590 in tax. Also, I understand the default would not show on credit report? Is this correct?
This just sounds like a win-win for the client!
Please let me know if I'm missing something before I recommend this strategy!
Client has a 401k with old employer valued at $45,000. Client also has outstanding loan balance of $5900 on the 401k. Due to some extraneous circumstances client will have very low income in 2006 (less than $10,000).
He can rollover the current account value, default on the loan and pay income tax on the default via 1099-C. Is this right?
If so, I think it's a good strategy to get away from a $5900 balance for roughly $590 in tax. Also, I understand the default would not show on credit report? Is this correct?
This just sounds like a win-win for the client!
Please let me know if I'm missing something before I recommend this strategy!
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