Is my logic correct? If a couple is divorced and have a child (who is a student) and reached the age of majority in March of 2014, am I correct in thinking that the one and only one that could claim the child is the Mom with whom the child lived all year. As the rules for divorced parents no longer apply once the child reaches the age of majority. So the divorce decree and or an 8332 would no longer be relevant. Dad would have no legitimate right to claim the child under any circumstances other than as a qualifying relative which would not apply because the child would be a qualifying child of mom. In past years the mom has always allowed the dad to claim the child based on the divorce decree terms. But this year she indicated she would like to claim even though she knows he will also.
My point being ... I don't see any way the dad would have any right based on the rules to claim the child even if mom said fine and did not. If so, how and under what rule would he be allowed the exemption.
My point being ... I don't see any way the dad would have any right based on the rules to claim the child even if mom said fine and did not. If so, how and under what rule would he be allowed the exemption.
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