Taxpayer's income is above the limits to contribute to a Roth IRA. Taxpayer instead makes a nondeductible contribution to traditional IRA, then the next day converts the amount to a Roth.
My question is if anyone knows of specific situations where the IRS is applying the step transaction doctrine to these conversions and treating them as improper Roth contributions?
I've heard rumors this is occuring, but have nothing concrete. There are obviously lots of opinions on either side as to whether this type of transaction is legitimate, but I'm more interested in whether someone has actual knowledge of IRS action on this issue.
My question is if anyone knows of specific situations where the IRS is applying the step transaction doctrine to these conversions and treating them as improper Roth contributions?
I've heard rumors this is occuring, but have nothing concrete. There are obviously lots of opinions on either side as to whether this type of transaction is legitimate, but I'm more interested in whether someone has actual knowledge of IRS action on this issue.
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