Is anyone here familiar with the depreciation of a co-operatives which is a rental property?
For a co-operatives, I know we depreciate the value of the stocks held by the owner, instead of the basis of the property.
I have followed the formula to calculate the basis of the stocks owned by the taxpayer in Pub 527. But the result is greater than what the taxpayer has actually paid to purchase the property. Is it possible or does that mean I have done something wrong in my calculation?
For a co-operatives, I know we depreciate the value of the stocks held by the owner, instead of the basis of the property.
I have followed the formula to calculate the basis of the stocks owned by the taxpayer in Pub 527. But the result is greater than what the taxpayer has actually paid to purchase the property. Is it possible or does that mean I have done something wrong in my calculation?
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