Taxpayer owns several pieces of properties used in business. Borrowed heavily against the properties in past years and now getting loan modifications and 1099-C's due to the modifications. The properties have dropped in value so much that taxpayer is insolvent. Not all properties have been modified yet (working on it.....what a mess!) Taxpayer did not discuss with anyone prior to the process and wasn't aware she would be receiving cancellation of debt on the modifications (it did say so in the paperwork). She is also not eligible for the qualified real property business debt exclusion being she did not file her 2012 tax return on time. So my question is this:
In researching the reduction of tax attributes, I found that the amount of the reduction of the basis of properties is limited to the excess of the aggregate of the taxpayer's adjusted basis of assets held immediately after the debt has been discharged over liabilities owed immediately after the discharge.
So, am I understanding correctly that if taxpayer's aggregate liabilities for taxpayers' real properties are more than the adjusted basis of those properties, there is no basis reduction??
In researching the reduction of tax attributes, I found that the amount of the reduction of the basis of properties is limited to the excess of the aggregate of the taxpayer's adjusted basis of assets held immediately after the debt has been discharged over liabilities owed immediately after the discharge.
So, am I understanding correctly that if taxpayer's aggregate liabilities for taxpayers' real properties are more than the adjusted basis of those properties, there is no basis reduction??
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