A loan

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  • NotEasy
    Senior Member
    • Mar 2007
    • 374

    #1

    A loan

    Client said his father is going to give her a loan to buy a house and she is worried about the tax consequence. I explained to her a loan is not considered income and so there is no tax on getting a loan. But I suggest her to keep the proof that it is really a loan.

    So my question is: What documents does she need to keep in order to prove that it is a legitimate loan?

    The obvious one came to my mind is a promissory note. What else does she need other than a promissory note?
  • DaveO
    Senior Member
    • Dec 2005
    • 1453

    #2
    Recording the mortgage at the Register of Deeds office is a good step.
    In other words, a democratic government is the only one in which those who vote for a tax can escape the obligation to pay it.
    Alexis de Tocqueville

    Comment

    • NotEasy
      Senior Member
      • Mar 2007
      • 374

      #3
      Originally posted by DaveO
      Recording the mortgage at the Register of Deeds office is a good step.
      Thank you. But I forgot to say her father is a non-resident. So the loan will be from oversea.

      Can she record a loan from oversea in the Deeds office here?

      Comment

      • Lion
        Senior Member
        • Jun 2005
        • 4699

        #4
        Is she paying interest? Is her father filing a 1040-NR to report interest received. Does her mortgage company know it was a loan and not a gift? Did she file the form for receiving a gift from overseas? (don't know the number by memory)

        Comment

        • WhiteOleander
          Senior Member
          • Jun 2005
          • 1370

          #5
          Well, if it is a loan, it is not a gift. It might become one if she doesn't pay it back.
          You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say will be misquoted, then used against you.

          Comment

          • NotEasy
            Senior Member
            • Mar 2007
            • 374

            #6
            Originally posted by Lion
            (1) Is she paying interest?
            (2) Is her father filing a 1040-NR to report interest received.
            (3) Does her mortgage company know it was a loan and not a gift?
            (4) Did she file the form for receiving a gift from overseas? (don't know the number by memory)
            (1) I need to ask her if she will pay interest. Would it be a problem if it is an interest-free loan?

            (2) Her father is not a US resident. Is he required to file a 1040-NR if he receives interest from the taxpayer?

            (3) I will let her know the importance of telling the mortgage company about it (in case she still needs to get a mortgage).

            (4) Since it is a loan (based on what she said), I am thinking she does not need to file an oversea gift return. Please correct me if I am wrong here.
            Last edited by NotEasy; 04-19-2013, 05:17 PM.

            Comment

            • ChEAr$
              Senior Member
              • Dec 2005
              • 3872

              #7
              Well, I don't see she has any problem at all, unless ultimately proving to IRS in case of audit that it was indeed not income.
              ChEAr$,
              Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA

              Comment

              • Gretel
                Senior Member
                • Jun 2005
                • 4008

                #8
                I am wondering if you client pays interest if she is also looking for a Schedule A deduction.

                Comment

                • geekgirldany
                  Senior Member
                  • Jul 2005
                  • 2359

                  #9
                  I had a client who loaned their daughter money to purchase a house. They went to a lawyer to draw up the paperwork and made sure that it was not a below market interest loan. Daughter paid for several years but later got a loan from the bank. She paid her parents back through that loan.

                  Comment

                  • Burke
                    Senior Member
                    • Jan 2008
                    • 7068

                    #10
                    Originally posted by ChEAr$
                    Well, I don't see she has any problem at all, unless ultimately proving to IRS in case of audit that it was indeed not income.
                    Me, either. If it is an interest-free "loan," then it is a gift. The one who needs to be concerned here is the father. If he wants to be paid back, then constructing a proper promissory note and recording it at the courthouse as a lien against the property is the correct way to do it. If it is not for the full purchase price of the house, then I assume she is getting a mortgage for the balance. In that case, his claim will be secondary to the 1st mortgagor. I don't see any problem with the fact that he is overseas, but the promissory note, if any, should have his signature witnessed or notarized, and should clearly state the interest rate and term. An amortization schedule can be run for both parties to use if they wish.
                    Last edited by Burke; 04-21-2013, 02:35 PM.

                    Comment

                    • NotEasy
                      Senior Member
                      • Mar 2007
                      • 374

                      #11
                      Originally posted by Burke
                      Me, either. If it is an interest-free "loan," then it is a gift. The one who needs to be concerned here is the father. If he wants to be paid back, then constructing a proper promissory note and recording it at the courthouse as a lien against the property is the correct way to do it. If it is not for the full purchase price of the house, then I assume she is getting a mortgage for the balance. In that case, his claim will be secondary to the 1st mortgagor. I don't see any problem with the fact that he is overseas, but the promissory note, if any, should have his signature witnessed or notarized, and should clearly state the interest rate and term. An amortization schedule can be run for both parties to use if they wish.
                      Sorry, you lost me there. If it is a loan that the principal has to be paid back in the future, how can it be considered a "gift" even if it is interest-free?

                      Or did you mean the imputed interest (estimated based on the prevailing market rate of interest I believe) should be considered "gift"? I can understand it if that's what you meant.

                      Comment

                      • mactoolsix
                        Senior Member
                        • Apr 2009
                        • 544

                        #12
                        Form 3520

                        Originally posted by Lion
                        Did she file the form for receiving a gift from overseas? (don't know the number by memory)
                        The form Lion is referring to is Form 3520 - required for any transfers to or from foreign persons (related or not), trusts, etc that are of $100,000 or more. If this is truly an interest paying loan (or will have imputed interest) this form would not be required.

                        However, if it becomes a gift and is over $100,000 then the form would be required.

                        Mike

                        Comment

                        • Burke
                          Senior Member
                          • Jan 2008
                          • 7068

                          #13
                          Originally posted by NotEasy
                          Sorry, you lost me there. If it is a loan that the principal has to be paid back in the future, how can it be considered a "gift" even if it is interest-free? Or did you mean the imputed interest (estimated based on the prevailing market rate of interest I believe) should be considered "gift"? I can understand it if that's what you meant.
                          Not exactly. Poor wording, I admit. I put the word "loan" in quotation marks to illustrate that it is not really a loan if there is no legally enforceable way such as a promissory note or something in writing to require repayment. It would be treated as a gift.

                          Comment

                          • NotEasy
                            Senior Member
                            • Mar 2007
                            • 374

                            #14
                            Originally posted by Burke
                            Not exactly. Poor wording, I admit. I put the word "loan" in quotation marks to illustrate that it is not really a loan if there is no legally enforceable way such as a promissory note or something in writing to require repayment. It would be treated as a gift.
                            Thank you for the explanation, Burke.

                            Comment

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