I have a client that bought a duplex and the second half was occupied by one of their mothers.
They are looking to sell it now, and have asked me for some assurance on the sale of home exclusion.
There was no business use of the duplex, and I'm quite sure - from our conversations over the years - that they spent a good deal of time tending the mother.
I'm just not sure if I can stretch the use rule to cover the exclusion on the second half of the property. The closest thing it seems to be would be a second home.
I'd like some opionions on whether they qualify for the full exclusion or only half on this sale.
They are looking to sell it now, and have asked me for some assurance on the sale of home exclusion.
There was no business use of the duplex, and I'm quite sure - from our conversations over the years - that they spent a good deal of time tending the mother.
I'm just not sure if I can stretch the use rule to cover the exclusion on the second half of the property. The closest thing it seems to be would be a second home.
I'd like some opionions on whether they qualify for the full exclusion or only half on this sale.
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