Client sold house contract for deed, installment payments. He still owes money, where does the interest he is paying deducted?
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Interest and contract for deed
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I reported the interest I paid on a house I sold that way on Form 4952, Investment Interest. I believe the deduction cannot exceed your investment income which would include the interest you receive on the installment not plus any dividends or other investment income.
Edit Note: I originally typed the form number as 4962, not 4952
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What would the difference be? If you sold a personal residence and carried the note, the interest you collect would be investment income. Same if you sold a rent house or commercial building you had been renting. You would still be able to deduct the investment interest up to the extent of investment income.
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Originally posted by JenMO View PostClient sold house contract for deed, installment payments. He still owes money, where does the interest he is paying deducted?
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Originally posted by taxxcpa View PostWhat would the difference be? If you sold a personal residence and carried the note, the interest you collect would be investment income. Same if you sold a rent house or commercial building you had been renting. You would still be able to deduct the investment interest up to the extent of investment income.
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Originally posted by Burke View PostMaybe I am a little dense, but I am trying to figure out this question. If client sold the house under an installment contract, he is receiving interest on the note, and that is reported on Schedule B. What interest is he paying that you are trying to deduct?
I had the same situation come up. I sold my residence and still owed some on my mortgage. The buyer was turned down by his bank (poor credit) so I seller-financed it. About a year or two later I paid off my mortgage, but until I paid it, I still had interest expense which I classified as investment interest.
The happy ending was that after paying on the mortgage for ten years (usually paying late and once missing three payments) the buyer's rich uncle (or someone) must have died and left him a lot of money, so he paid the entire remaining balance in January 2013.Last edited by taxxcpa; 03-25-2013, 02:03 PM.
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Originally posted by taxxcpa View PostAs I understood the question it involved a contract for sale on an installment contract. At the time of the sale, the seller still owed on a mortgage he had used to finance the purchase of the property so he still paid interest to the bank while collecting it from the new buyer.
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Well, that additional information does make a difference. And I have that exact same situation going on with a current client. Interest received goes on Sche B. Mtge interest seller still owes bank goes on 4952 to the extent of investment income. This year, he had deductible investment interest (on the mortgage) in excess of investment income, so there is a carryover to 2013. That happened because the buyer did not make all the payments he should have.
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