A client changed jobs and rolled over her 401K minus $ 13,000 that she had borrowed from the plan which the 401K custodian kept to pay off the loan.
She got a sign-on bonus with the new job which enables her to place $13000 more into the rollover IRA than the net she received from the 401K.
Assuming that she had $113000 in the 401K and she had a direct rollover of $100,000. Then, using $ 13000 of her sign-on bonus she places $13000 in the new rollover IRA bringing it up to the total amount which would have been available if she had paid off the loan before making the rollover. (all done in a few days after leaving her old job)
I assume that she will get two 1099s--one for the direct rollover amount and a second one shown as a taxable withdrawal for the $ 13,000. Can she then identify the $ 13,000 as an indirect rollover?
If she had taken it all in cash without the direct rollover, she would have probably received one 1099 for the entire amount and could have identified it all as an indirect rollover. If she had paid of the loan before rolling it over, it could all have been identifed as a direct rollover. Therefore, I believe she can take it all as a nontaxable amount by the two-step approach she has taken. Am I right or wrong?
She got a sign-on bonus with the new job which enables her to place $13000 more into the rollover IRA than the net she received from the 401K.
Assuming that she had $113000 in the 401K and she had a direct rollover of $100,000. Then, using $ 13000 of her sign-on bonus she places $13000 in the new rollover IRA bringing it up to the total amount which would have been available if she had paid off the loan before making the rollover. (all done in a few days after leaving her old job)
I assume that she will get two 1099s--one for the direct rollover amount and a second one shown as a taxable withdrawal for the $ 13,000. Can she then identify the $ 13,000 as an indirect rollover?
If she had taken it all in cash without the direct rollover, she would have probably received one 1099 for the entire amount and could have identified it all as an indirect rollover. If she had paid of the loan before rolling it over, it could all have been identifed as a direct rollover. Therefore, I believe she can take it all as a nontaxable amount by the two-step approach she has taken. Am I right or wrong?
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