I have a client who it seems is being hit with AMT. He had some wages (he worked part of the year), then retired. So he also has some social security. He took his 401K money out and bought 2 houses. One he gave to his son and his family. The other he will give to his other son when he finishes his schooling. He told them don't expect anything when I am gone, you are getting it now.
Because of the high AGI, he can't itemize even though he had a lot of medical bills. He has no mortgage interest. Only taxes and contributions.
There doesn't seem to be anything to put on the 6251 to reduce his AMT.
I DON'T UNDERSTAND. I thought AMT was to make sure people paid taxes who were reducing their income with large deductions or losses. This isn't the case. So why is he having to pay more tax just because he has higher income? He is already in a high tax bracket.
I guess I am really dense or have never had AMT explained to me so that I could really understand it. HELP please.
Linda, EA
Because of the high AGI, he can't itemize even though he had a lot of medical bills. He has no mortgage interest. Only taxes and contributions.
There doesn't seem to be anything to put on the 6251 to reduce his AMT.
I DON'T UNDERSTAND. I thought AMT was to make sure people paid taxes who were reducing their income with large deductions or losses. This isn't the case. So why is he having to pay more tax just because he has higher income? He is already in a high tax bracket.
I guess I am really dense or have never had AMT explained to me so that I could really understand it. HELP please.
Linda, EA
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