I have a new S-Corp client. Started the business in 2010. He received a loan from a investor of $2,500 a month. The loan will have to be paid back starting late 2012.
My confusion is the client used this loan to pay himself around $29,000. He did not pay himself a "payroll" just took the money out of the corporation. The company made just enough to cover expenses and has a loss of about $2,000.
So I am unsure what to do with the $29,000 he took out as distributions. He has no shareholder basis in the company. So all the $29,000 would be taxed as capital gains. I also could insist that it be reclassified as payroll and him pay taxes on it. Another option would be Loan to Shareholder with accrued interest.... don't really want to do that.
In 2010, it appears that the money he took was classified as distributions as it is coded against retained earnings in the bookkeeping.
Thing is I am not doing his personal return. The wife is doing it on TT. So I am not sure if I say the excess distributions would even be put on the personal return.
I guess what is messing me up is him receiving the money from this investor and then just using most of it to pay himself.
Would appreciate any feedback on this.
My confusion is the client used this loan to pay himself around $29,000. He did not pay himself a "payroll" just took the money out of the corporation. The company made just enough to cover expenses and has a loss of about $2,000.
So I am unsure what to do with the $29,000 he took out as distributions. He has no shareholder basis in the company. So all the $29,000 would be taxed as capital gains. I also could insist that it be reclassified as payroll and him pay taxes on it. Another option would be Loan to Shareholder with accrued interest.... don't really want to do that.
In 2010, it appears that the money he took was classified as distributions as it is coded against retained earnings in the bookkeeping.
Thing is I am not doing his personal return. The wife is doing it on TT. So I am not sure if I say the excess distributions would even be put on the personal return.
I guess what is messing me up is him receiving the money from this investor and then just using most of it to pay himself.
Would appreciate any feedback on this.
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