Client received a 1099A from the foreclosure of her personal residence. She declared bankruptcy previously (chapter 7). Box 2, "Balance of principal outstanding is $208,000." Box 4, FMV is $216,850. Is any reporting required? She was personally liable for the repayment of the debt.
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Originally posted by zeros View PostClient received a 1099A from the foreclosure of her personal residence. She declared bankruptcy previously (chapter 7). Box 2, "Balance of principal outstanding is $208,000." Box 4, FMV is $216,850. Is any reporting required? She was personally liable for the repayment of the debt.
I would report it on D showing her basis. Their probably won't be a 1099C?
I know I'm questioning my replies. This is an area I feel very nervous about for some reason. I've had situations just like this and even called NATP but it seems too good to be true that there is nothing taxable.Last edited by JG EA; 02-25-2012, 12:44 PM.JG
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I think the form 1099-A is used to determine any taxable gain from the sale and is reported on Sch D and form 8949.
The selling price is the outstanding balance of the loan.
The basis is what it is.
The FMV is irrelevant.
Sec. 121 (see code "H" on the form 8949) can apply if the transaction shows a gain. If so, the gain is an adjustment on form 8949.
If the transaction shows a nondeductible loss or a nontaxable gain, I'm not at all sure whether the 1099-A needs to be reported at all. I have been reporting 1099-A whether there is any tax effect or not. So far, any gains on returns I've prepared have been excluded due to 121.
I might not be doing this correctly, but there doesn't seem to be any consensus.
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Originally posted by zeros View PostDoes there need to be any entries on the 982 form? Just on schedule D?You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say will be misquoted, then used against you.
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Originally posted by WhiteOleander View PostIt is my understanding that the sales price is the lower of the FMV or outstanding balance reported on the 1099A.
IRS Publication 4681 table 1-1 part 2 covers the calculation. You use the smaller of FMV or "Enter the amount of outstanding debt immediately before the transfer of property reduced by any amount for which you remain personally liable immediately after the transfer of property."
But what exactly does that mean? One way a 1099-C can differ from a 1099-A is that the 1099-A reports the balance of principal outstanding while 1099-C reports Amount of debt discharged.
Debt can include interest, fees, penalties, administrative costs, and fines - in addition to principal. So going back to the 4681 table and the scenario here, let's say the balance of principal outstanding is $208,000 and there is unpaid interest, fees, administrative costs, and fines of $8,000 (keeping the total below the FMV of $216,850).
Would you use $208,000 for the selling price or would you use $216,000 for the selling price?
What if the interest, fees, penalties, administrative costs and fines amounted to $20,000. Would the bank issue a 1099-C for $11,150 for those non-principal debts?
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