I have a longtime client that has inquired aout 8606's filed in prior years. They don't exist. He has not begun getting those $ from the IRAs (non deductable traditional)- but wishes to possibly in the next year or 2.
He's sure he gave me everything rcvd from broker & I maintain that I would not have ignored that info (and included everything else).
Do I need to do 1040X or what is the best way to proceed? Any issues you can think of?
He's sure he gave me everything rcvd from broker & I maintain that I would not have ignored that info (and included everything else).
Do I need to do 1040X or what is the best way to proceed? Any issues you can think of?
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