Prospective client/taxpayer has been referred and is the brother of an existing client for whom I have respect. TP purchased and improved investment real estate in the mid-80s. Now he is selling. TP has closing statements on the original purchase but does not have records to support $300K of capital improvements he made in the early years. His original accountant entered the scene after the capital improvements were made and set up depreciation schedules based on the original cost basis only. Capital improvements were never added. TP has tax returns dating back to 1998 only. TP does have "collateral evidence" such as photographs of the property before and after improvements. Prospective TP seems sincere and his description of the improvements he made is plausible.
I could amend open returns and use recalculated depreciation based on TP estimation of capital improvements. Then capital gain would be determined using recalculated basis.
Does TP stand any chance of his position holding up? Would any special disclosure need to be made, and if so, on what form? If this approach does not withstand IRS scrutiny, how severe are the penalties?
Thoughts and any direction are appreciated.
I could amend open returns and use recalculated depreciation based on TP estimation of capital improvements. Then capital gain would be determined using recalculated basis.
Does TP stand any chance of his position holding up? Would any special disclosure need to be made, and if so, on what form? If this approach does not withstand IRS scrutiny, how severe are the penalties?
Thoughts and any direction are appreciated.
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