Admittedly, I'm up at an odd hour an this post may be driven by sleep deprivation. However, I don't recall seeing this discussed anywhere before and it is intriguing at this hour. I ran across it while looking up a slightly related matter and it caught my attention.
Assume a closely-held corporation, with the only shareholders being a husband and wife, who are also the only directors. Instead of holding board meetings at the corporate office, they elect to hold the meetings in their home. They rent the home to the corporation for the purpose of holding the meetings at a rate of $400 per day, which would be a reasonable rate for a comparable facility in their area of the country. They have one meeting per month plus an extra annual meeting, so in the course of the year they receive $5,200 in rental income, which is deductible by the corporation. Since their total days of rental are 14 or less, they are not required to report the rental income under Section 280A(g).
If the rental were an arms-length transaction with an unrelated party, the rental income would clearly be non-taxable to the homeowner and the expense would be deductible by the customer if there is a valid business purpose for the rental. Does anything in this scenario change when the related-party corporation (either a C corp or an S corp) is the customer?
I saw this on a site promoting multi-level marketing "tax savings" strategies and considering the source I was ready to dismiss it outright, but then I ran into some trouble debunking it. Can somebody either shoot this down or confirm it for me? All responses are encouraged, including idle speculation, derisive laughter, or harsh criticism.
Assume a closely-held corporation, with the only shareholders being a husband and wife, who are also the only directors. Instead of holding board meetings at the corporate office, they elect to hold the meetings in their home. They rent the home to the corporation for the purpose of holding the meetings at a rate of $400 per day, which would be a reasonable rate for a comparable facility in their area of the country. They have one meeting per month plus an extra annual meeting, so in the course of the year they receive $5,200 in rental income, which is deductible by the corporation. Since their total days of rental are 14 or less, they are not required to report the rental income under Section 280A(g).
If the rental were an arms-length transaction with an unrelated party, the rental income would clearly be non-taxable to the homeowner and the expense would be deductible by the customer if there is a valid business purpose for the rental. Does anything in this scenario change when the related-party corporation (either a C corp or an S corp) is the customer?
I saw this on a site promoting multi-level marketing "tax savings" strategies and considering the source I was ready to dismiss it outright, but then I ran into some trouble debunking it. Can somebody either shoot this down or confirm it for me? All responses are encouraged, including idle speculation, derisive laughter, or harsh criticism.
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