New client officially moved to AZ mid 2010. In 2009 and 2008 client physically spent time in AZ working and spent time in TX at their residence yet her 09 and 08 tax return includes an AZ residence tax return. TX has no income tax. Reason there to amend her 09 & 08 AZ tax returns?
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Depending on other income like interest, div and the like, there may be no difference.Originally posted by AZ-Tax View PostThis post is for discussion purposes only and should be verified with other sources before actual use.
Many times I post additional info on the post, Click on "message board" for updated content. -
Nope, no other income
Nope, no other income. Strictly W-2 wageComment
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Did you try the Non-resident return?This post is for discussion purposes only and should be verified with other sources before actual use.
Many times I post additional info on the post, Click on "message board" for updated content.Comment
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No on trying the NR return
New client came in late just prepared. Client officially moved (by purchasing a house in AZ mid 2010) so AZ resident return but still even that should have probably been 1/2 year resident. Need to email client and ask her why she filed and/or what her tax preparers told her the reason was she filed a NR return but keep forgettingComment
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Are you saying the person that worked in AZ shouldn't have paid taxes in AZ??? Yes, they should. The above answers were based on the assumption you were asking why a RESIDENT return was filed when it should have been a non-resident return.Originally posted by AZ-Tax View PostJGComment
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