Taxpayer took out a mortgage on a residence intended to be a second home in a non-recourse state (Arizona). Loan was never re-financed, no home equity loan or a second mortgage was ever taken out. A while later, she rented property for a while, and then property was "given back to the bank." If the original loan was non-recourse, does it continue to be that type even after the use of the property was changed from personal to business? There was no change in the terms of the original loan when it became a rental. She hasn't received a 1099-C up to this time and believes the property hasn't yet been sold by the bank.
I have been under the impression that the nature of the original loan was what matters (recourse or non-recourse) but I had a conversation with a colleague with real estate experience who said that once a property changes from personal use to business (i.e., rental) that a non-recourse loan becomes recourse? Any thoughts or experience with this? (Client hasn't yet received 1099-A and/or C--just want to prepare her if she is going to have considerable COD income.)
I have been under the impression that the nature of the original loan was what matters (recourse or non-recourse) but I had a conversation with a colleague with real estate experience who said that once a property changes from personal use to business (i.e., rental) that a non-recourse loan becomes recourse? Any thoughts or experience with this? (Client hasn't yet received 1099-A and/or C--just want to prepare her if she is going to have considerable COD income.)
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