Client owned a home (2003-2009) with previous wife; divorced in Dec. 2009. Actually mortgage was only in name of ex-wife but a deed was signed and filed adding him as co-owner in '03 and another signed taking him off as co-owner in '09. Both transactions had zero dollars as purchase and sale price. He thinks (and was told by realtor) that he wasn't "owner" as he wasn't on mortgage but I disagree and feel that only the $6500 credit is available, not the $8000. Do you agree?
Follow-up question: He bought a new home in January '10 and has all the appropriate paperwork for that purchase. Then he re-married later in '10 and wants to file a joint return. New wife has not been a homeowner and her name isn't on the deed of new home.
So...is he a long-time home buyer eligible for $6500 credit? I believe that his marital status at time of purchase allows him to take credit even though new wife isn't a long-time home owner. Am I correct?
Follow-up question: He bought a new home in January '10 and has all the appropriate paperwork for that purchase. Then he re-married later in '10 and wants to file a joint return. New wife has not been a homeowner and her name isn't on the deed of new home.
So...is he a long-time home buyer eligible for $6500 credit? I believe that his marital status at time of purchase allows him to take credit even though new wife isn't a long-time home owner. Am I correct?
Comment