Taxpayer sold second home. Never at any time was it rented out or otherwise used to produce income and it was bought as a second home rather than for investment purposes. It was sold as a loss and I'm here asking for confirmation or contradiction of what I think I know.
I think the sale goes directly on Sch D as opposed to going somewhere else and carrying to D and I have to somehow tell my software that it is a nondeductible loss so that the bottom line on D won't carry anywhere else on the return. I think basis is calculated in exactly the same way as for a sale of a main home. (Once I know I have the theory right I can talk to Drake about how to do it in their software.)
I think the sale goes directly on Sch D as opposed to going somewhere else and carrying to D and I have to somehow tell my software that it is a nondeductible loss so that the bottom line on D won't carry anywhere else on the return. I think basis is calculated in exactly the same way as for a sale of a main home. (Once I know I have the theory right I can talk to Drake about how to do it in their software.)
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