Does everyone visiting this forum realize that there is an RMD requirement for inherited, non-spousal Roth IRAs? I did not until just a few days ago. It does make sense, though. Congress apparently decided that to NOT have such a requirement, huge sums of $$$ would eventually find their way into Roth IRAs, producing never taxed income for beneficiaries who never contributed to them.
The RMD in this situation must begin the very next year after inheritance and is based on the IRS's single-life table. That is NOT the same table as the "uniform" table from which regular RMDs are figured for traditional IRAs.
The RMD in this situation must begin the very next year after inheritance and is based on the IRS's single-life table. That is NOT the same table as the "uniform" table from which regular RMDs are figured for traditional IRAs.
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