We are apparently allowed to deduct a loss on an IRA as a Misc Itemized Deduction subject to the 2%.
Interesting phone call from a former client, a retired PhD in Electrical Engineering, who has relocated to Ohio and now uses TurboTax. His 2008 return was audited by IRS and an adjustment proposed for a typical TT user who has bought into the idea that a lousy 44 bucks makes him a prolific tax preparer.
I agreed with IRS and want to make sure my unwelcomed news was correct.
During 2008 the value of his IRA dropped from $1,000,000 to $500,000. His minimum required distribution was $60,000. So he reads in the Pubs that if a loss is distributed, it becomes an itemized deduction to the extent of the loss. So he figures that he has a 50% loss, and in the $60,000 distribution, 50% of it was a "loss." He takes a $30,000 deduction subject to the 2%.
He has been filing 8606, and has a basis of $31,000. In the days before 1975 when there was no income deferral, he contributed from after-tax money to TIAA-CREF when he was a Professor, and has religiously calculated his tax-free basis. His taxable distribution, instead of $60,000, has been correctly calculated to account for his basis.
I agree with everything, except I believe the calculation of a "loss" has to be measured against basis rather than prior year value. In other words, the only way he could have a loss would be if the value of his IRA dropped BELOW $31,000. If it dropped to $24,000, he could have deducted $7,000 or his distribution, whichever was less. And his basis going into the next year would have been $24K instead of $31K.
Comments? Am I losing it?
Interesting phone call from a former client, a retired PhD in Electrical Engineering, who has relocated to Ohio and now uses TurboTax. His 2008 return was audited by IRS and an adjustment proposed for a typical TT user who has bought into the idea that a lousy 44 bucks makes him a prolific tax preparer.
I agreed with IRS and want to make sure my unwelcomed news was correct.
During 2008 the value of his IRA dropped from $1,000,000 to $500,000. His minimum required distribution was $60,000. So he reads in the Pubs that if a loss is distributed, it becomes an itemized deduction to the extent of the loss. So he figures that he has a 50% loss, and in the $60,000 distribution, 50% of it was a "loss." He takes a $30,000 deduction subject to the 2%.
He has been filing 8606, and has a basis of $31,000. In the days before 1975 when there was no income deferral, he contributed from after-tax money to TIAA-CREF when he was a Professor, and has religiously calculated his tax-free basis. His taxable distribution, instead of $60,000, has been correctly calculated to account for his basis.
I agree with everything, except I believe the calculation of a "loss" has to be measured against basis rather than prior year value. In other words, the only way he could have a loss would be if the value of his IRA dropped BELOW $31,000. If it dropped to $24,000, he could have deducted $7,000 or his distribution, whichever was less. And his basis going into the next year would have been $24K instead of $31K.
Comments? Am I losing it?
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