One of the tedious events in a tax appointment is explaining why a client must recapture depreciation when he never got the benefit of deducting it. The infamous "depreciable" language which implies that the property could have been depreciated.
Paul buys a new tractor in 2009. Which of the following categorizes this property as being "depreciable" for 2010? Assume that he has NOT taken a depreciation deduction for any of the foregoing:
a) Paul farms his land but does not file a return.
b) Paul farms his land but has a farm loss reducing his tax liability to zero.
c) Paul has a farm loss but cannot claim it in 2010 because he is not at risk.
d) Paul rents out his farm and uses the tractor only to mow/bushhog his large yard.
My opinion, for what it's worth, is a) and b) causes the tractor to be "depreciable." d) is not depreciable, and I don't know about c). Since the loss in c) can be rolled into a future gain, I would think he should have claimed the deduction, but I don't know whether that necessarily means the tractor is depreciable.
Paul buys a new tractor in 2009. Which of the following categorizes this property as being "depreciable" for 2010? Assume that he has NOT taken a depreciation deduction for any of the foregoing:
a) Paul farms his land but does not file a return.
b) Paul farms his land but has a farm loss reducing his tax liability to zero.
c) Paul has a farm loss but cannot claim it in 2010 because he is not at risk.
d) Paul rents out his farm and uses the tractor only to mow/bushhog his large yard.
My opinion, for what it's worth, is a) and b) causes the tractor to be "depreciable." d) is not depreciable, and I don't know about c). Since the loss in c) can be rolled into a future gain, I would think he should have claimed the deduction, but I don't know whether that necessarily means the tractor is depreciable.
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