Here's an off-the-wall question. If the IRS prepares a substitute return for a taxpayer or taxpayers that they know to be married, are they required to use MFS as the filing status? As an extreme example, suppose a couple has been filing MFJ for years, including two Schedule Cs as a qualified joint venture, skip a year, then file again as MFJ, continuing the joint venture with both Schedule Cs and all the depreciation continued as if the missing year had been done correctly.
This has nothing to do with any real life case, but is purely for documentation purposes. I'd like to be able to write "If a couple is required to file but either files separately or doesn't file at all...", and be guaranteed that the IRS doesn't file a joint return for them. Otherwise I'd be forced to add a footnote that complicates matters.
My intuition says the IRS would have to file MFS, since they couldn't possibly compel one spouse to be liable for the other spouse's part of the return. But I can't find anything in the code or regs that deals with this (and I've not yet learned to navigate the IRM).
This has nothing to do with any real life case, but is purely for documentation purposes. I'd like to be able to write "If a couple is required to file but either files separately or doesn't file at all...", and be guaranteed that the IRS doesn't file a joint return for them. Otherwise I'd be forced to add a footnote that complicates matters.
My intuition says the IRS would have to file MFS, since they couldn't possibly compel one spouse to be liable for the other spouse's part of the return. But I can't find anything in the code or regs that deals with this (and I've not yet learned to navigate the IRM).
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