I prepare several returns which I consider "charity" cases, along with some family members whom I don't charge. In past years I would sign the "Paid Preparer" line and fill in the info just as a matter of habit. However, this year I decided to stop doing that and just fill in the info & sign on returns I actually charge to prepare. These are all individual income tax returns (not business clients for whom I'm doing other paid work on a corporate return, payroll tax reports, etc). Keep in mind that all my returns are paper filed, so I have no indirect connection to the process of actually filing the return.
Now I have another category of return. I'm cutting loose some clients after this year and there are a few of them among the returns I'm finishing up between now and Oct 15. As a courtesy, I'm not charging for their work this year. A strict interpretation of the "Paid Preparer" designation would say I don't need to sign because I'm not being paid. However, does the fact that I have been paid to prepare their returns over the past 2-5 years have any bearing on the definition of "Paid Preparer" in the current year? Does history have any bearing on whether I'm a paid preparer, or is it a return-by-return definition with each year standing on its own? I'd appreciate anybody's thoughts on this question.
Now I have another category of return. I'm cutting loose some clients after this year and there are a few of them among the returns I'm finishing up between now and Oct 15. As a courtesy, I'm not charging for their work this year. A strict interpretation of the "Paid Preparer" designation would say I don't need to sign because I'm not being paid. However, does the fact that I have been paid to prepare their returns over the past 2-5 years have any bearing on the definition of "Paid Preparer" in the current year? Does history have any bearing on whether I'm a paid preparer, or is it a return-by-return definition with each year standing on its own? I'd appreciate anybody's thoughts on this question.
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