Is it necessary to impute interest on all obligations where interest is unstated?
For example, what about an installment sale that transpires over a number of years, but where no profit or loss occurred on the sale?
What about "Due to Shareholders" in cases where the shareholder has advanced money to a corporation and the advance has remained on the books for over one year??
For example, what about an installment sale that transpires over a number of years, but where no profit or loss occurred on the sale?
What about "Due to Shareholders" in cases where the shareholder has advanced money to a corporation and the advance has remained on the books for over one year??
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