I was doing some reading on guaranteed payments and ran across something interesting with regards to a partner providing services, not receiving guaranteed payments, but instead reclassifying g/p as "distributions" that are usually accompanied by an income allocation.
This seems a good way to increase basis, whereas, a g/p will not. Did I understand this correctly?
If someone is familiar with this, would you mind shedding some light on this for me?
Thank you.
This seems a good way to increase basis, whereas, a g/p will not. Did I understand this correctly?
If someone is familiar with this, would you mind shedding some light on this for me?
Thank you.
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