I have a client who has never owned a home.
He married a woman in 2009 who has owned a home for 3 years.
It appears from the instructions for Form 5405 that he does not qualify as a 1st-time homebuyer - correct?
And she does not as well. - correct?
Thank you.
He married a woman in 2009 who has owned a home for 3 years.
It appears from the instructions for Form 5405 that he does not qualify as a 1st-time homebuyer - correct?
And she does not as well. - correct?
Thank you.
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