Client bought a house for his daughter to live in, not a rental, not for investment, for purely personal reasons. Now daughter's circumstances have changed, so client sold house, not to daughter. Client never lived there. In my sleep deprived state, I just don't feel confident I'm reporting this correctly. Is this just like the sale of most capital assets on Schedule D? He bought in 1999 for $185,000 and sold in 2009 for $225,000. Closing costs were fairly small at both ends, he paid cash and didn't even have a realtor at his purchase; but that still adds a bit to his basis.
If this is plain vanilla 15% capital gain, then with his minimal income now (SS and $3,500 pension) it's actually taxed at 0%. Right?
If this is plain vanilla 15% capital gain, then with his minimal income now (SS and $3,500 pension) it's actually taxed at 0%. Right?
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