Taxpayer gave back a timeshare unit week. Says the original cost was $5100. Well, the debt cancelled is $9500. Wha? I can't figure out how they could owe more than the original cost. They did not borrow money using the timeshare as collateral. What am I missing?
Edit: Think she means she has PAID $5100 on the debt? I know, I know, why am I asking you and not her?
Edit: Think she means she has PAID $5100 on the debt? I know, I know, why am I asking you and not her?
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