I agree also that an ex-spouse doesn't count anymore for this purpose.
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Joan - question
Originally posted by joanmcq View PostThe ability to file as HOH (considered unmarried) does not negate the fact that the person in the example IS still married. I agree with BP and the others. The divorced person, as long as he or she did not reside in the ex-spouse's home in the previous three years, did not own a PRINCIPAL residence in the three year qualifying period, and was not married at the time of purchase, and thus no imputed ownership exists.
I really appreciate everyone's comments. I like to discuss and learn and I think this a good learning experience for me.
Dusty
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Originally posted by Dusty2004 View Postif a husband and wife live in different homes - he owns the home and she rents - no ownership - not on title - not on mortgage - never spent one night in the house - if she were to purchase a house of her own then she could claim the FTHB? If not what changes?
First, consider the marital status at purchase date, not the deed/mortgage/living status. If married at purchase, then go to the next step of considering those things; if single at purchase, no need to get to that next step of taking former spouse's situation into account.Last edited by BP.; 02-18-2010, 05:50 AM.
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One final example
Originally posted by BP. View PostNo, because what has changed in your example is that they are married - husband and wife- spouses.
First, consider the marital status at purchase date, not the deed/mortgage/living status. If married at purchase, then go to the next step of considering those things; if single at purchase, no need to get to that next step of taking former spouse's situation into account.
Here is where I think we disagree and I could be wrong. I think you need to look at all 3 years and see if she qualifies each year.
March 2008 - March 2009 - Single - Did not own a home - qualifies.
March 2007 - March 2008 - Single - Did not own a home - qualifies.
October 2006 - March 2007 - Single - Did not own a home - qualifies.
March 2006 - October 2006 - Married - Did not own a home - Spouse owend a home - thus it is imputed per Section 36(c)(1) - requires that the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse not have an ownership interest in a principal residence within the three years prior to the date of purchase."
She fails because her spouse did own a principal residence. The fact that she is single now does not make her single in March of 2006.
Dusty
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Originally posted by dyne View PostThe problem is that if we allow this credit and are wrong, IRS could assert a penalty against
us. I plan to NOT allow this credit if I have any doubt after researching the issue.
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On the contrary, I am considered to be the BEST in this area by ALL of my clients
and several CPA's and tax preparers I know. I was interviewed and it was shown
on TV a few years ago and articles were written about me as far away as Atlanta, Ga
in newpapers about two years ago praising me. I saved the taxpayers in my state
2 millions dollars in state tax several years ago when I found an error in the law which I had
corrected. I do not like to brag but you challenged me.
dyne EA
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