I have a client who has for many years owned a rental property now valued at $1.5M. He has a mortgage of 1M on it. His basis is about 200K, and he has claimed about 60K of depreciation. He wants to donate this property to a private school for use in its educational activities. The school will assume the mortgage. I see two possibilities:
a) He simply claims 500K charitable deduction, subject to the 30%-of-AGI limit, or
b) He has to treat this as a bargain sale, claiming the 500K charitable deduction, but also reporting the gain on a sale price equal to the mortgage.
Obviously Option a) would be much to my client's advantage.
From p. 8 of Pub. 526:
"Property Subject to a Debt
...If the debt is assumed by the recipient (or another person), you must also reduce the fair market value of the property by the amount of the outstanding debt assumed.
If you sold the property to a qualified organization at a bargain price, the amount of the debt is also treated as an amount realized on the sale or exchange of property. For more information, see Bargain Sales under Giving Property That Has Increased in Value, later."
The "If" at the beginning of the 2nd paragraph seems to make a distinction between a gift of property subject to debt and a bargain sale of such property. It does not imply that having the recipient assume the debt automatically converts the transaction into a bargain sale. But this interpretation seems to lead to a reductio ad absurdum. Selling the property to the school for as little as $1 would drastically alter the tax consequences!
I would appreciate any help anyone can offer on this. There is obviously a lot at stake for my client.
a) He simply claims 500K charitable deduction, subject to the 30%-of-AGI limit, or
b) He has to treat this as a bargain sale, claiming the 500K charitable deduction, but also reporting the gain on a sale price equal to the mortgage.
Obviously Option a) would be much to my client's advantage.
From p. 8 of Pub. 526:
"Property Subject to a Debt
...If the debt is assumed by the recipient (or another person), you must also reduce the fair market value of the property by the amount of the outstanding debt assumed.
If you sold the property to a qualified organization at a bargain price, the amount of the debt is also treated as an amount realized on the sale or exchange of property. For more information, see Bargain Sales under Giving Property That Has Increased in Value, later."
The "If" at the beginning of the 2nd paragraph seems to make a distinction between a gift of property subject to debt and a bargain sale of such property. It does not imply that having the recipient assume the debt automatically converts the transaction into a bargain sale. But this interpretation seems to lead to a reductio ad absurdum. Selling the property to the school for as little as $1 would drastically alter the tax consequences!
I would appreciate any help anyone can offer on this. There is obviously a lot at stake for my client.
Comment