TP and spouse have owned a personal residence for 5 consecutive years of last 8 years.
Issue is: the law is phrased "the SAME principal residence". TP & spouse have owned 2 homes consecutively during 5 years of 8 year period as their principal residence. Sold first home in 2006 to buy home #2, which they sold in fall of 2009 before buying current "home buyer credit" home in distant city.
TP and spouse shared the same principal residence at all times, but are they disqualified because more than one building is involved? Am I splitting hairs over the word "same"?
I'd love some opinions.
"FTHTC available for existing homeowners who are “long-time residents.” For purchases after Nov. 6, 2009, any individual (and, if married, the individual's spouse) who has maintained the same principal residence for any 5-consecutive year period during the 8-year period ending on the date of the purchase of a subsequent principal residence is treated for FTHTC purposes as a first-time homebuyer of that subsequent principal residence.
Issue is: the law is phrased "the SAME principal residence". TP & spouse have owned 2 homes consecutively during 5 years of 8 year period as their principal residence. Sold first home in 2006 to buy home #2, which they sold in fall of 2009 before buying current "home buyer credit" home in distant city.
TP and spouse shared the same principal residence at all times, but are they disqualified because more than one building is involved? Am I splitting hairs over the word "same"?
I'd love some opinions.
"FTHTC available for existing homeowners who are “long-time residents.” For purchases after Nov. 6, 2009, any individual (and, if married, the individual's spouse) who has maintained the same principal residence for any 5-consecutive year period during the 8-year period ending on the date of the purchase of a subsequent principal residence is treated for FTHTC purposes as a first-time homebuyer of that subsequent principal residence.
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