This is an outgrowth of an ongoing post, but that thread is fraught with many topics, so I'll start this one so the topic can be focused.
Can there be a "Cost of Goods Sold" if there are no "goods?" Most of you will recognize this as being a Part III to Sch. C or Schedule A on an 1120, etc.
This discussion may have a counterpart in GAAP reporting as well, and I mention this because IRS [may, may not] allow GAAP treatment.
Can there be a "Cost of Goods Sold" if there are no "goods?" Most of you will recognize this as being a Part III to Sch. C or Schedule A on an 1120, etc.
This discussion may have a counterpart in GAAP reporting as well, and I mention this because IRS [may, may not] allow GAAP treatment.
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