I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around this one, would appreciate opinions.
S/H gets a construction loan, then pays his 100% owned S-corp to build his primary residence. I don't know yet if he paid at just cost to build, or if he also paid more (like you would normally do in an arms-length transaction).
Is this income to the S-corp?
Which is then income to the shareholder as it flows thru...if there is a profit.
And if there isn't a profit, then I don't see this as an arms-length transaction.
The client's rationale for this is that he needs to show income (from the K-1, as he never got around to paying himself on a W-2 !!) in order to qualify for the take-out loan.
From the lenders viewpoint, this just seems fraudulent to me.
Thanks for any input.
S/H gets a construction loan, then pays his 100% owned S-corp to build his primary residence. I don't know yet if he paid at just cost to build, or if he also paid more (like you would normally do in an arms-length transaction).
Is this income to the S-corp?
Which is then income to the shareholder as it flows thru...if there is a profit.
And if there isn't a profit, then I don't see this as an arms-length transaction.
The client's rationale for this is that he needs to show income (from the K-1, as he never got around to paying himself on a W-2 !!) in order to qualify for the take-out loan.
From the lenders viewpoint, this just seems fraudulent to me.
Thanks for any input.
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