OK, here is a screwball one for you. New client gets my e-mail address from mortgage broker and e-mails me copies of 08 return and the settlement stmt from the home she purchased. All seems normal, but I need to dig a little deeper. I call the client and ask if they have owned a home in the last 3 years. She says yes, she is on the title of her parents house so it won't have to go thru probate. I say uh oh let me research this. I read and it says "principle residence" and also gives examples of owning a rental home. So I think cool, I call her back and ask if she lived there. Her answer was after her dad died in the early 90's she moved in and has lived there, paying rent (probably unrecorded) to mom until she bought this house.
So in a nutshell she is on the title for probate purposes and she lived there as her principle residence. Do you think she qualifies for the credit or not? I do not think she does. If you have any authoritative links please send those as well.
So in a nutshell she is on the title for probate purposes and she lived there as her principle residence. Do you think she qualifies for the credit or not? I do not think she does. If you have any authoritative links please send those as well.
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