All my career I have interfaced with the spectre of savings bonds. "Bond-a-month" club, payroll withholdings, etc. And in every case, a bond of any denomination may be bought by paying 75% of the face value. A $25 bond may be purchased for $18.75 - a $50 bond may be purchased for $37.50, etc.
A client cashed in bonds in 2007. I'll use rounded numbers for easy illustration. Face value of bonds cashed in was $20,000. Proceeds were $34,000. IRS is referencing a Treasury Agency 1099-INT from the Bureau of the Public Debt, which says the interest earned was $24,000. This means the bonds would have been purchased for $10,000, or 50% of their face value.
I maintain that if the face value was $20,000 the taxpayer would have bought them for $15,000 and the interest earned would be only $19,000. Taxpayer is in nursing home, and his representative cannot find original purchase documentation, which occurred during a number of years under a "bond-a-month" program sponsored by his employer.
How strong is my argument? I'm aware that IRS is going to accept the validity of the 1099-INT before listening to anything else, but I want to know whether my thinking is flawed.
A client cashed in bonds in 2007. I'll use rounded numbers for easy illustration. Face value of bonds cashed in was $20,000. Proceeds were $34,000. IRS is referencing a Treasury Agency 1099-INT from the Bureau of the Public Debt, which says the interest earned was $24,000. This means the bonds would have been purchased for $10,000, or 50% of their face value.
I maintain that if the face value was $20,000 the taxpayer would have bought them for $15,000 and the interest earned would be only $19,000. Taxpayer is in nursing home, and his representative cannot find original purchase documentation, which occurred during a number of years under a "bond-a-month" program sponsored by his employer.
How strong is my argument? I'm aware that IRS is going to accept the validity of the 1099-INT before listening to anything else, but I want to know whether my thinking is flawed.
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