Client owes back taxes (income and payroll) to 2006 - took it upon himself to deal with IRS and made an Offer (I was NOT involved in offer until NOW!)
Client got call from IRS in TX. Client was told his offer MAY be rejected and that he should withdraw it first (IRS sent him a little 2 -3 sentence prepared withdrawal letter) - then contact IRS and request that 10% payment previously sent with offer be applied to oldest tax balance due for his personal income tax and that IRS would probably declare the business "portion" (payroll?) of taxes "uncollectible" at some point?
Have any of you had a situation like this?
1. Is IRS wanting t/p to withdraw OIC because it MIGHT be approved?
2. Can money already "applied" by IRS (probably to interest/penalties) be changed and applied to "principal" (actual tax due)?
THANKS in advance for any insight!
Client got call from IRS in TX. Client was told his offer MAY be rejected and that he should withdraw it first (IRS sent him a little 2 -3 sentence prepared withdrawal letter) - then contact IRS and request that 10% payment previously sent with offer be applied to oldest tax balance due for his personal income tax and that IRS would probably declare the business "portion" (payroll?) of taxes "uncollectible" at some point?
Have any of you had a situation like this?
1. Is IRS wanting t/p to withdraw OIC because it MIGHT be approved?
2. Can money already "applied" by IRS (probably to interest/penalties) be changed and applied to "principal" (actual tax due)?
THANKS in advance for any insight!
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