My client is a C-corp who invested $10,000 in another corporation [Corporation X}. Both corporations are typical commercial corporations, neither being a §401 or §501 or anything squirrely. Investment occurred in 2002, and there have been no dividends declared during this period.
In 2008 Corporation X decides it wants to convert to a subchapter S. My client knew nothing about it until they received a K-1 Form 1120S. Of course, the existence of a corporate shareholder in Corporation X means that its status as a Sub S is invalid.
What is my responsibility as a tax preparer? Should I decline to file on the K-1 income because I know it is improper? Should I contact Corporation X? Should I ask my client to contact Corporation X?
I am certain it is not my job to police the validity of Corporation X status. But should someone notify them?
In 2008 Corporation X decides it wants to convert to a subchapter S. My client knew nothing about it until they received a K-1 Form 1120S. Of course, the existence of a corporate shareholder in Corporation X means that its status as a Sub S is invalid.
What is my responsibility as a tax preparer? Should I decline to file on the K-1 income because I know it is improper? Should I contact Corporation X? Should I ask my client to contact Corporation X?
I am certain it is not my job to police the validity of Corporation X status. But should someone notify them?
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