I think I know something - it is established - then someone throws me a curve. I learned through *someone who should know these things* that on a 1041, FMV of a home should equal the sale price *minus* the closing costs!!! This is of course assuming the time of sale is near the date of death. What? I didn't know that. I always thought the conventional wisdom was that the beneficiaries would benefit a little on their K-1 just because of the closing costs.
I would appreciate comments on the above point and I also have another question:
Facts: MFJ, TP dies in May, their rental house continues to be rented until date of sale in July. Spouse gets FMV for the TP's portion or in a community property state FMV for the whole thing as of the date in May.
Question: Does all depreciation get 1250 treatment like normal?
I would appreciate comments on the above point and I also have another question:
Facts: MFJ, TP dies in May, their rental house continues to be rented until date of sale in July. Spouse gets FMV for the TP's portion or in a community property state FMV for the whole thing as of the date in May.
Question: Does all depreciation get 1250 treatment like normal?
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