In tax year 2008 one of my client's had property A and B, and A was not available for rent; it was only available to be sold. It had expenses and carryover losses. Therefore, no current losses available.
However, my question:
Carryover losses would still be available for property A from the prior years with current losses from property B totaling a $25,000 overall passive activity loss? So a percentage of property A loss is being carried forward by my software (about 1/3), and the balance of the current loss is being sustained by property B.
Please advise if I am missing something. Form 8582 is being shown with the prior losses and carryover for Property A. I just want to be sure I am on the right track. It is late in the day, and I want to be sure that I am on the right track
Thanks for your help.
rfk
However, my question:
Carryover losses would still be available for property A from the prior years with current losses from property B totaling a $25,000 overall passive activity loss? So a percentage of property A loss is being carried forward by my software (about 1/3), and the balance of the current loss is being sustained by property B.
Please advise if I am missing something. Form 8582 is being shown with the prior losses and carryover for Property A. I just want to be sure I am on the right track. It is late in the day, and I want to be sure that I am on the right track
Thanks for your help.
rfk
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