I have (or had) an S-Corp client which fell apart last year. There were 2 shareholders owning 50% each. Shareholder A presented a buyout offer to Shareholder B to purchase his entire ownership for $20K via a cashiers check. The offer alluded to a non-compete agreement the be decided upon later, but didn't specifically one out.
About a week later, Shareholder A deposited $10K to the corp account and a $10K check was written to Shareholder B from the corporation account, with the notation "1/2 buyout". This was done with the consent of Shareholder A.
A week later, a $5K check was written to Shareholder B with the notation "1/4 buyout. This was also done with the consent of Shareholder A.
Then 2 weeks later, Shareholder B went into the office very early, wrote himself a $5K check, and left his stock certificate on the desk. The stock certificate was endorsed back to the corp, not to Shareholder A. This was all done without the consent of Shareholder A, as he didn't know about it until he arrived at the office that morning.
(Nobody is telling me very much about motivation, but I'm pretty sure that Shareholder B handled things in this way to avoid signing the non-compete agreement)
Shareholder A now has the main thing he originally wanted (100% ownership of the corp) and although he's upset over how it went down at the end, he's generally fine with the outcome. So I'm thinking through this, and even though the form of the transaction was different than the original agreement, the substance is close to the same.
The only thing that bugs me is whether the distributions to Shareholder B prior to the date he signed over the stock certificate constituted an unequal distribution and would be a disqualifying event invalidating the S-corp election as of that date. If the original agreement had called for this sort of buyout plan it probably wouldn't matter, but since there was no agreement between the corp and Shareholder B, I'm wondering if this could be a problem. If anyone has any thoughts on this, especially if you think I'm torturing the facts, I'd like to hear.
Isn't it wonderful how clients do these things without asking any questions?
About a week later, Shareholder A deposited $10K to the corp account and a $10K check was written to Shareholder B from the corporation account, with the notation "1/2 buyout". This was done with the consent of Shareholder A.
A week later, a $5K check was written to Shareholder B with the notation "1/4 buyout. This was also done with the consent of Shareholder A.
Then 2 weeks later, Shareholder B went into the office very early, wrote himself a $5K check, and left his stock certificate on the desk. The stock certificate was endorsed back to the corp, not to Shareholder A. This was all done without the consent of Shareholder A, as he didn't know about it until he arrived at the office that morning.
(Nobody is telling me very much about motivation, but I'm pretty sure that Shareholder B handled things in this way to avoid signing the non-compete agreement)
Shareholder A now has the main thing he originally wanted (100% ownership of the corp) and although he's upset over how it went down at the end, he's generally fine with the outcome. So I'm thinking through this, and even though the form of the transaction was different than the original agreement, the substance is close to the same.
The only thing that bugs me is whether the distributions to Shareholder B prior to the date he signed over the stock certificate constituted an unequal distribution and would be a disqualifying event invalidating the S-corp election as of that date. If the original agreement had called for this sort of buyout plan it probably wouldn't matter, but since there was no agreement between the corp and Shareholder B, I'm wondering if this could be a problem. If anyone has any thoughts on this, especially if you think I'm torturing the facts, I'd like to hear.
Isn't it wonderful how clients do these things without asking any questions?
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