The other day I posted a thread that I was doing a taxpayers taxes and wanted to make sure about the basis.
He told me he and his mother owned a house together and she died in March of 2005.
I took half the origional cost plus half the FMV of the house at the time the mother died as his basis.
Now the problem. The taxpayer called me just now and said that he had never actually paid any money on the house and he had never lived in it. He said his mother put his name on the title so when she died there would be no problems with it.
Now if I had to make the decision, I would say that he just inherited the house from his mother and sold it a month later and sold it for the same FMV that he inherited from her and that it should not be taxable.
Does anyone else have a problem with his name being on the deed even though his mother paid for it?
I would appreciate any answers.
Ken
He told me he and his mother owned a house together and she died in March of 2005.
I took half the origional cost plus half the FMV of the house at the time the mother died as his basis.
Now the problem. The taxpayer called me just now and said that he had never actually paid any money on the house and he had never lived in it. He said his mother put his name on the title so when she died there would be no problems with it.
Now if I had to make the decision, I would say that he just inherited the house from his mother and sold it a month later and sold it for the same FMV that he inherited from her and that it should not be taxable.
Does anyone else have a problem with his name being on the deed even though his mother paid for it?
I would appreciate any answers.
Ken
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