Client is a teacher with $250 Educator expenses. He set up a qualified Ed-Vest fund with his son as the designated beneficiary. The total amount was used to pay his sons tuition with basis of $6,500 and Earnings of $270.
The educator expense is being reduced to Zero because of the non-taxable distribution from the program.
Is this correct if the funds were used for the designated beneficiary, his son?
Is this because the fund is in the taxpayers name and having a designated beneficiary has no bearing?
The educator expense is being reduced to Zero because of the non-taxable distribution from the program.
Is this correct if the funds were used for the designated beneficiary, his son?
Is this because the fund is in the taxpayers name and having a designated beneficiary has no bearing?
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