Client paid $36,000 for a vehicle and borrowed all the money on an interest-free loan. He is using standard mileage rate to deduct business portion of auto expense.
He could have bought the same vehicle for $30,500 and then paid $5500 in interest. Had he done this, he could have deducted the business portion of Interest in addition to the standard mileage rate.
We all know there is no such thing as interest-free use of money over time, and the IRS will "impute" interest if there is no stated interest. Can we therefore "impute" interest on this loan for purpose of deducting it?
IRS imputes interest income when it is to their advantage. Can we not do the same?
He could have bought the same vehicle for $30,500 and then paid $5500 in interest. Had he done this, he could have deducted the business portion of Interest in addition to the standard mileage rate.
We all know there is no such thing as interest-free use of money over time, and the IRS will "impute" interest if there is no stated interest. Can we therefore "impute" interest on this loan for purpose of deducting it?
IRS imputes interest income when it is to their advantage. Can we not do the same?
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