I want to make sure I am not missing something here.
Client has a flow thru on a 2008 k1 scorp.
I will keep the numbers simple.
Line 9 of his k1, "net section 1231 gain(loss)" indicates a loss of 90,000.
The loss originates from the 1120s, form 4797, Part I, sale of business asset goodwill.
Assuming he has adequate basis in the Scorp to cover the loss, the loss is fully deductible on his 2008 1040 against other income.
He files a joint return with his wife, their combined income in 2008 from w2 is 40,000.
It looks to me that the entire 90,000 loss is "used up" in 2008.
It wipes out their tax liability for 2008, but there is nothing left to carry over?
The 90,000 loss is not limited by the $3000 per year loss on long term capital losses?
I went onto his 1040 and keyed in a regular old 4797 duplicating a similar transaction on the 1040 level and the result is the same, ie, no loss carryforward, total consumption (waste) of the loss in 2008.
Am I missing something here?
Harvey Lucas
Client has a flow thru on a 2008 k1 scorp.
I will keep the numbers simple.
Line 9 of his k1, "net section 1231 gain(loss)" indicates a loss of 90,000.
The loss originates from the 1120s, form 4797, Part I, sale of business asset goodwill.
Assuming he has adequate basis in the Scorp to cover the loss, the loss is fully deductible on his 2008 1040 against other income.
He files a joint return with his wife, their combined income in 2008 from w2 is 40,000.
It looks to me that the entire 90,000 loss is "used up" in 2008.
It wipes out their tax liability for 2008, but there is nothing left to carry over?
The 90,000 loss is not limited by the $3000 per year loss on long term capital losses?
I went onto his 1040 and keyed in a regular old 4797 duplicating a similar transaction on the 1040 level and the result is the same, ie, no loss carryforward, total consumption (waste) of the loss in 2008.
Am I missing something here?
Harvey Lucas
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